Dimension of hyperplanes
Theorem:
|
A set
where Conversely, any affine set of dimension |
Proof:
Consider a set
described by a single affine equation:
![]()
with
. Let us assume for example that
. We can express
as follows:
![]()
This shows that the set is of the form
, where
![Rendered by QuickLaTeX.com \[ z_0 = \begin{pmatrix} b \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ \vdots \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}, \quad z_1 = \begin{pmatrix} -\dfrac{a_2}{a_1} \\[0.8em] 1 \\ 0 \\ \vdots \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}, \quad \ldots, \quad z_{n-1} = \begin{pmatrix} -\dfrac{a_n}{a_1} \\[0.8em] 0 \\ \vdots \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}. \]](https://pressbooks.pub/app/uploads/quicklatex/quicklatex.com-fc8962fbba29900f3cd1a773d8608933_l3.png)
Since the vectors
are independent, the dimension of
is
. This proves that
is indeed an affine set of dimension
.
The converse is also true. Any subspace
of dimension
can be represented via an equation
for some
. A sketch of the proof is as follows. We use the fact that we can form a basis
for the subspace
. We can then construct a vector
that is orthogonal to all of these basis vectors. By definition,
is the set of vectors that are orthogonal to
.